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*To*: human@nh.ultranet.com (Huw Powell)*Subject*: Re: Torque curves and some confused pedantry*From*: orin@netcom.com (Orin Eman)*Date*: Mon, 14 Apr 1997 12:15:12 -0700 (PDT)*Cc*: quattro@coimbra.ans.net*In-Reply-To*: <199704141659.MAA01407@hammurabi.nh.ultra.net> from "Huw Powell" at Apr 14, 97 01:04:03 pm*Sender*: owner-quattro@coimbra.ans.net

> -- [ From: Huw Powell * EMC.Ver #3.1a ] -- > > >> By the way, if you think of torque as the total area under the curve > > >if you think of *horsepower* as the total area under the *torque* curve? > > Well, which one is the integral or derivative of the other? What are the > units? foot-pounds and foot-pounds/time? In which case the torque could be > derivative of the power and the second comment would be correct. > > But is the torque actually the derivative of the hp? help, I've fallen and > I can't get up! No, it's not d(hp)/dt, it's just hp/t. different plate o' > cakes... > > especially considering I've substituted "t" for rpms. Ignoring things like units... power is work/time, work is force times distance. So, power = (force * distance ) / time distance/time is velocity which is proportional to rpm (assuming no gear changes now) force is proportional to torque (depends on gearing) So, out of this mess, we get: power is proportional to torque * rpm BTW: the G-Tech calculates hp from m*v*a. It measures a (acceleration) from its sensor, you enter m (mass of car) and it calculates v (velocity) by integrating a over time. Orin.

**References**:**Re: Torque curves and some confused pedantry***From:*Huw Powell <human@nh.ultranet.com>

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